(Thanks, C. :)

Reader Charles writes:

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Re: Reader JT: 'But that is just the beginning....

Again, I question the logic behind the positions, Pledge being Feudal Oath.

What I don’t understand, and request someone please explain to me, is very simple.

Either the American people, our government, and our land was released from feudal law of Britain in 1783 or we weren’t.

Why am I being asked to give credibility to the feudal law system when I was released as a subject to that law system under a treaty 1783?

Under what the set of circumstances was the feudal law of Britain created to not control the Royals subjects?

Why do I need to reference the feudal law of Britain in order to define my positions, actions or understandings of words now?

Does the good English Crown own and control English common law and equity as private property?

Are the dictionaries and histories published in Britain property of the crown?

If I am using the Queens is private property am I bound thereto under some sort of use or obligation?

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